Solution for 1.500 is what percent of 72:

1.500:72*100 =

(1.500*100):72 =

150:72 = 2.0833333333333

Now we have: 1.500 is what percent of 72 = 2.0833333333333

Question: 1.500 is what percent of 72?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 72 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={72}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1.500}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={72}(1).

{x\%}={1.500}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{72}{1.500}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1.500}{72}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.0833333333333\%}

Therefore, {1.500} is {2.0833333333333\%} of {72}.


What Percent Of Table For 1.500


Solution for 72 is what percent of 1.500:

72:1.500*100 =

(72*100):1.500 =

7200:1.500 = 4800

Now we have: 72 is what percent of 1.500 = 4800

Question: 72 is what percent of 1.500?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1.500 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1.500}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={72}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1.500}(1).

{x\%}={72}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1.500}{72}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{72}{1.500}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4800\%}

Therefore, {72} is {4800\%} of {1.500}.