Solution for 1.56 is what percent of 42:

1.56:42*100 =

(1.56*100):42 =

156:42 = 3.7142857142857

Now we have: 1.56 is what percent of 42 = 3.7142857142857

Question: 1.56 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1.56}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1.56}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1.56}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1.56}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3.7142857142857\%}

Therefore, {1.56} is {3.7142857142857\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1.56


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1.56:

42:1.56*100 =

(42*100):1.56 =

4200:1.56 = 2692.3076923077

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1.56 = 2692.3076923077

Question: 42 is what percent of 1.56?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1.56 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1.56}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1.56}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1.56}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1.56}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2692.3076923077\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2692.3076923077\%} of {1.56}.