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Solution for 1000 is what percent of 42:

1000:42*100 =

(1000*100):42 =

100000:42 = 2380.95

Now we have: 1000 is what percent of 42 = 2380.95

Question: 1000 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1000}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1000}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1000}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1000}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2380.95\%}

Therefore, {1000} is {2380.95\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 1000:

42:1000*100 =

(42*100):1000 =

4200:1000 = 4.2

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1000 = 4.2

Question: 42 is what percent of 1000?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1000 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1000}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1000}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1000}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1000}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4.2\%}

Therefore, {42} is {4.2\%} of {1000}.