Solution for 15.08 is what percent of 42:

15.08:42*100 =

(15.08*100):42 =

1508:42 = 35.904761904762

Now we have: 15.08 is what percent of 42 = 35.904761904762

Question: 15.08 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={15.08}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={15.08}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{15.08}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{15.08}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {35.904761904762\%}

Therefore, {15.08} is {35.904761904762\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 15.08


Solution for 42 is what percent of 15.08:

42:15.08*100 =

(42*100):15.08 =

4200:15.08 = 278.51458885942

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 15.08 = 278.51458885942

Question: 42 is what percent of 15.08?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 15.08 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={15.08}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={15.08}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{15.08}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{15.08}

\Rightarrow{x} = {278.51458885942\%}

Therefore, {42} is {278.51458885942\%} of {15.08}.