Solution for 1506 is what percent of 42:

1506:42*100 =

(1506*100):42 =

150600:42 = 3585.71

Now we have: 1506 is what percent of 42 = 3585.71

Question: 1506 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1506}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1506}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1506}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1506}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3585.71\%}

Therefore, {1506} is {3585.71\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1506


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1506:

42:1506*100 =

(42*100):1506 =

4200:1506 = 2.79

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1506 = 2.79

Question: 42 is what percent of 1506?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1506 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1506}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1506}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1506}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1506}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.79\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.79\%} of {1506}.