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Solution for 1508 is what percent of 42:

1508:42*100 =

(1508*100):42 =

150800:42 = 3590.48

Now we have: 1508 is what percent of 42 = 3590.48

Question: 1508 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1508}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1508}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1508}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1508}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3590.48\%}

Therefore, {1508} is {3590.48\%} of {42}.

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• 1508 is what percent of 41 = 3678.05
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Solution for 42 is what percent of 1508:

42:1508*100 =

(42*100):1508 =

4200:1508 = 2.79

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1508 = 2.79

Question: 42 is what percent of 1508?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1508 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1508}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1508}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1508}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1508}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.79\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.79\%} of {1508}.