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Solution for 152000 is what percent of 42:

152000:42*100 =

(152000*100):42 =

15200000:42 = 361904.76

Now we have: 152000 is what percent of 42 = 361904.76

Question: 152000 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={152000}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={152000}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{152000}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{152000}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {361904.76\%}

Therefore, {152000} is {361904.76\%} of {42}.

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• 152000 is what percent of 100 = 152000

Solution for 42 is what percent of 152000:

42:152000*100 =

(42*100):152000 =

4200:152000 = 0.03

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 152000 = 0.03

Question: 42 is what percent of 152000?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 152000 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={152000}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={152000}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{152000}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{152000}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.03\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.03\%} of {152000}.