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Solution for 15500 is what percent of 42:

15500:42*100 =

(15500*100):42 =

1550000:42 = 36904.76

Now we have: 15500 is what percent of 42 = 36904.76

Question: 15500 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={15500}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={15500}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{15500}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{15500}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {36904.76\%}

Therefore, {15500} is {36904.76\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 15500:

42:15500*100 =

(42*100):15500 =

4200:15500 = 0.27

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 15500 = 0.27

Question: 42 is what percent of 15500?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 15500 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={15500}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={15500}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{15500}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{15500}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.27\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.27\%} of {15500}.