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Solution for 1568 is what percent of 42:

1568:42*100 =

(1568*100):42 =

156800:42 = 3733.33

Now we have: 1568 is what percent of 42 = 3733.33

Question: 1568 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1568}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1568}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1568}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1568}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3733.33\%}

Therefore, {1568} is {3733.33\%} of {42}.

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• 1568 is what percent of 100 = 1568

Solution for 42 is what percent of 1568:

42:1568*100 =

(42*100):1568 =

4200:1568 = 2.68

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1568 = 2.68

Question: 42 is what percent of 1568?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1568 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1568}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1568}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1568}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1568}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.68\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.68\%} of {1568}.