Solution for 16.2 is what percent of 42:

16.2:42*100 =

(16.2*100):42 =

1620:42 = 38.571428571429

Now we have: 16.2 is what percent of 42 = 38.571428571429

Question: 16.2 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={16.2}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={16.2}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{16.2}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{16.2}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {38.571428571429\%}

Therefore, {16.2} is {38.571428571429\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 16.2


Solution for 42 is what percent of 16.2:

42:16.2*100 =

(42*100):16.2 =

4200:16.2 = 259.25925925926

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 16.2 = 259.25925925926

Question: 42 is what percent of 16.2?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 16.2 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={16.2}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={16.2}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{16.2}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{16.2}

\Rightarrow{x} = {259.25925925926\%}

Therefore, {42} is {259.25925925926\%} of {16.2}.