Solution for 16.32 is what percent of 42:

16.32:42*100 =

(16.32*100):42 =

1632:42 = 38.857142857143

Now we have: 16.32 is what percent of 42 = 38.857142857143

Question: 16.32 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={16.32}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={16.32}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{16.32}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{16.32}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {38.857142857143\%}

Therefore, {16.32} is {38.857142857143\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 16.32


Solution for 42 is what percent of 16.32:

42:16.32*100 =

(42*100):16.32 =

4200:16.32 = 257.35294117647

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 16.32 = 257.35294117647

Question: 42 is what percent of 16.32?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 16.32 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={16.32}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={16.32}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{16.32}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{16.32}

\Rightarrow{x} = {257.35294117647\%}

Therefore, {42} is {257.35294117647\%} of {16.32}.