Solution for 16.82 is what percent of 42:

16.82:42*100 =

(16.82*100):42 =

1682:42 = 40.047619047619

Now we have: 16.82 is what percent of 42 = 40.047619047619

Question: 16.82 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={16.82}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={16.82}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{16.82}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{16.82}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {40.047619047619\%}

Therefore, {16.82} is {40.047619047619\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 16.82


Solution for 42 is what percent of 16.82:

42:16.82*100 =

(42*100):16.82 =

4200:16.82 = 249.70273483948

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 16.82 = 249.70273483948

Question: 42 is what percent of 16.82?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 16.82 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={16.82}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={16.82}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{16.82}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{16.82}

\Rightarrow{x} = {249.70273483948\%}

Therefore, {42} is {249.70273483948\%} of {16.82}.