Solution for 160 is what percent of 42:

160:42*100 =

(160*100):42 =

16000:42 = 380.95

Now we have: 160 is what percent of 42 = 380.95

Question: 160 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={160}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={160}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{160}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{160}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {380.95\%}

Therefore, {160} is {380.95\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 160


Solution for 42 is what percent of 160:

42:160*100 =

(42*100):160 =

4200:160 = 26.25

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 160 = 26.25

Question: 42 is what percent of 160?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 160 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={160}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={160}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{160}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{160}

\Rightarrow{x} = {26.25\%}

Therefore, {42} is {26.25\%} of {160}.