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Solution for 1601 is what percent of 42:

1601:42*100 =

(1601*100):42 =

160100:42 = 3811.9

Now we have: 1601 is what percent of 42 = 3811.9

Question: 1601 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1601}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1601}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1601}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1601}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3811.9\%}

Therefore, {1601} is {3811.9\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 1601:

42:1601*100 =

(42*100):1601 =

4200:1601 = 2.62

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1601 = 2.62

Question: 42 is what percent of 1601?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1601 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1601}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1601}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1601}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1601}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.62\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.62\%} of {1601}.