Solution for 1620 is what percent of 42:

1620:42*100 =

(1620*100):42 =

162000:42 = 3857.14

Now we have: 1620 is what percent of 42 = 3857.14

Question: 1620 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1620}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1620}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1620}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1620}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3857.14\%}

Therefore, {1620} is {3857.14\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1620


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1620:

42:1620*100 =

(42*100):1620 =

4200:1620 = 2.59

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1620 = 2.59

Question: 42 is what percent of 1620?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1620 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1620}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1620}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1620}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1620}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.59\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.59\%} of {1620}.