Solution for 1671 is what percent of 42:

1671:42*100 =

(1671*100):42 =

167100:42 = 3978.57

Now we have: 1671 is what percent of 42 = 3978.57

Question: 1671 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1671}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1671}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1671}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1671}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3978.57\%}

Therefore, {1671} is {3978.57\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1671


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1671:

42:1671*100 =

(42*100):1671 =

4200:1671 = 2.51

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1671 = 2.51

Question: 42 is what percent of 1671?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1671 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1671}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1671}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1671}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1671}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.51\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.51\%} of {1671}.