Solution for 16750 is what percent of 42:

16750:42*100 =

(16750*100):42 =

1675000:42 = 39880.95

Now we have: 16750 is what percent of 42 = 39880.95

Question: 16750 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={16750}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={16750}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{16750}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{16750}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {39880.95\%}

Therefore, {16750} is {39880.95\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 16750


Solution for 42 is what percent of 16750:

42:16750*100 =

(42*100):16750 =

4200:16750 = 0.25

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 16750 = 0.25

Question: 42 is what percent of 16750?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 16750 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={16750}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={16750}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{16750}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{16750}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.25\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.25\%} of {16750}.