Solution for 1678 is what percent of 42:

1678:42*100 =

(1678*100):42 =

167800:42 = 3995.24

Now we have: 1678 is what percent of 42 = 3995.24

Question: 1678 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1678}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1678}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1678}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1678}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3995.24\%}

Therefore, {1678} is {3995.24\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1678


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1678:

42:1678*100 =

(42*100):1678 =

4200:1678 = 2.5

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1678 = 2.5

Question: 42 is what percent of 1678?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1678 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1678}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1678}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1678}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1678}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.5\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.5\%} of {1678}.