Solution for 168.4 is what percent of 42:

168.4:42*100 =

(168.4*100):42 =

16840:42 = 400.95238095238

Now we have: 168.4 is what percent of 42 = 400.95238095238

Question: 168.4 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={168.4}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={168.4}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{168.4}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{168.4}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {400.95238095238\%}

Therefore, {168.4} is {400.95238095238\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 168.4


Solution for 42 is what percent of 168.4:

42:168.4*100 =

(42*100):168.4 =

4200:168.4 = 24.940617577197

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 168.4 = 24.940617577197

Question: 42 is what percent of 168.4?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 168.4 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={168.4}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={168.4}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{168.4}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{168.4}

\Rightarrow{x} = {24.940617577197\%}

Therefore, {42} is {24.940617577197\%} of {168.4}.