Solution for 1689 is what percent of 42:

1689:42*100 =

(1689*100):42 =

168900:42 = 4021.43

Now we have: 1689 is what percent of 42 = 4021.43

Question: 1689 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1689}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1689}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1689}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1689}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4021.43\%}

Therefore, {1689} is {4021.43\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1689


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1689:

42:1689*100 =

(42*100):1689 =

4200:1689 = 2.49

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1689 = 2.49

Question: 42 is what percent of 1689?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1689 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1689}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1689}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1689}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1689}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.49\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.49\%} of {1689}.