Solution for 1695 is what percent of 42:

1695:42*100 =

(1695*100):42 =

169500:42 = 4035.71

Now we have: 1695 is what percent of 42 = 4035.71

Question: 1695 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1695}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1695}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1695}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1695}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4035.71\%}

Therefore, {1695} is {4035.71\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1695


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1695:

42:1695*100 =

(42*100):1695 =

4200:1695 = 2.48

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1695 = 2.48

Question: 42 is what percent of 1695?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1695 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1695}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1695}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1695}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1695}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.48\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.48\%} of {1695}.