Solution for 1701 is what percent of 42:

1701:42*100 =

(1701*100):42 =

170100:42 = 4050

Now we have: 1701 is what percent of 42 = 4050

Question: 1701 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1701}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1701}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1701}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1701}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4050\%}

Therefore, {1701} is {4050\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1701


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1701:

42:1701*100 =

(42*100):1701 =

4200:1701 = 2.47

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1701 = 2.47

Question: 42 is what percent of 1701?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1701 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1701}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1701}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1701}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1701}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.47\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.47\%} of {1701}.