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Solution for 17300 is what percent of 42:

17300:42*100 =

(17300*100):42 =

1730000:42 = 41190.48

Now we have: 17300 is what percent of 42 = 41190.48

Question: 17300 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={17300}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={17300}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{17300}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{17300}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {41190.48\%}

Therefore, {17300} is {41190.48\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 17300:

42:17300*100 =

(42*100):17300 =

4200:17300 = 0.24

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 17300 = 0.24

Question: 42 is what percent of 17300?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 17300 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={17300}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={17300}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{17300}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{17300}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.24\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.24\%} of {17300}.