Solution for 1742 is what percent of 42:

1742:42*100 =

(1742*100):42 =

174200:42 = 4147.62

Now we have: 1742 is what percent of 42 = 4147.62

Question: 1742 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1742}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1742}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1742}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1742}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4147.62\%}

Therefore, {1742} is {4147.62\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1742


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1742:

42:1742*100 =

(42*100):1742 =

4200:1742 = 2.41

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1742 = 2.41

Question: 42 is what percent of 1742?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1742 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1742}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1742}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1742}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1742}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.41\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.41\%} of {1742}.