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Solution for 2075 is what percent of 42:

2075:42*100 =

(2075*100):42 =

207500:42 = 4940.48

Now we have: 2075 is what percent of 42 = 4940.48

Question: 2075 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={2075}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={2075}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{2075}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{2075}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4940.48\%}

Therefore, {2075} is {4940.48\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 2075:

42:2075*100 =

(42*100):2075 =

4200:2075 = 2.02

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 2075 = 2.02

Question: 42 is what percent of 2075?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 2075 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={2075}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={2075}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{2075}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{2075}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.02\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2.02\%} of {2075}.