Solution for 266 is what percent of 42:

266:42*100 =

(266*100):42 =

26600:42 = 633.33

Now we have: 266 is what percent of 42 = 633.33

Question: 266 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={266}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={266}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{266}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{266}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {633.33\%}

Therefore, {266} is {633.33\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 266


Solution for 42 is what percent of 266:

42:266*100 =

(42*100):266 =

4200:266 = 15.79

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 266 = 15.79

Question: 42 is what percent of 266?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 266 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={266}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={266}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{266}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{266}

\Rightarrow{x} = {15.79\%}

Therefore, {42} is {15.79\%} of {266}.