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Solution for 2807 is what percent of 42:

2807:42*100 =

(2807*100):42 =

280700:42 = 6683.33

Now we have: 2807 is what percent of 42 = 6683.33

Question: 2807 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={2807}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={2807}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{2807}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{2807}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {6683.33\%}

Therefore, {2807} is {6683.33\%} of {42}.

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• 2807 is what percent of 41 = 6846.34
• 2807 is what percent of 42 = 6683.33
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• 2807 is what percent of 100 = 2807

Solution for 42 is what percent of 2807:

42:2807*100 =

(42*100):2807 =

4200:2807 = 1.5

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 2807 = 1.5

Question: 42 is what percent of 2807?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 2807 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={2807}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={2807}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{2807}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{2807}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.5\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.5\%} of {2807}.