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Solution for 284000 is what percent of 42:

284000:42*100 =

(284000*100):42 =

28400000:42 = 676190.48

Now we have: 284000 is what percent of 42 = 676190.48

Question: 284000 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={284000}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={284000}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{284000}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{284000}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {676190.48\%}

Therefore, {284000} is {676190.48\%} of {42}.

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• 284000 is what percent of 100 = 284000

Solution for 42 is what percent of 284000:

42:284000*100 =

(42*100):284000 =

4200:284000 = 0.01

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 284000 = 0.01

Question: 42 is what percent of 284000?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 284000 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={284000}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={284000}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{284000}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{284000}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.01\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.01\%} of {284000}.