Solution for 2850 is what percent of 42:

2850:42*100 =

(2850*100):42 =

285000:42 = 6785.71

Now we have: 2850 is what percent of 42 = 6785.71

Question: 2850 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={2850}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={2850}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{2850}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{2850}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {6785.71\%}

Therefore, {2850} is {6785.71\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 2850


Solution for 42 is what percent of 2850:

42:2850*100 =

(42*100):2850 =

4200:2850 = 1.47

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 2850 = 1.47

Question: 42 is what percent of 2850?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 2850 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={2850}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={2850}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{2850}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{2850}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.47\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.47\%} of {2850}.