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Solution for 288 is what percent of 42:

288:42*100 =

(288*100):42 =

28800:42 = 685.71

Now we have: 288 is what percent of 42 = 685.71

Question: 288 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={288}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={288}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{288}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{288}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {685.71\%}

Therefore, {288} is {685.71\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 288:

42:288*100 =

(42*100):288 =

4200:288 = 14.58

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 288 = 14.58

Question: 42 is what percent of 288?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 288 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={288}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={288}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{288}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{288}

\Rightarrow{x} = {14.58\%}

Therefore, {42} is {14.58\%} of {288}.