Solution for 2980 is what percent of 42:

2980:42*100 =

(2980*100):42 =

298000:42 = 7095.24

Now we have: 2980 is what percent of 42 = 7095.24

Question: 2980 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={2980}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={2980}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{2980}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{2980}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {7095.24\%}

Therefore, {2980} is {7095.24\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 2980


Solution for 42 is what percent of 2980:

42:2980*100 =

(42*100):2980 =

4200:2980 = 1.41

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 2980 = 1.41

Question: 42 is what percent of 2980?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 2980 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={2980}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={2980}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{2980}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{2980}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.41\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.41\%} of {2980}.