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Solution for 3052 is what percent of 42:

3052:42*100 =

(3052*100):42 =

305200:42 = 7266.67

Now we have: 3052 is what percent of 42 = 7266.67

Question: 3052 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={3052}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={3052}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{3052}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{3052}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {7266.67\%}

Therefore, {3052} is {7266.67\%} of {42}.

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• 3052 is what percent of 41 = 7443.9
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Solution for 42 is what percent of 3052:

42:3052*100 =

(42*100):3052 =

4200:3052 = 1.38

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 3052 = 1.38

Question: 42 is what percent of 3052?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 3052 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={3052}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={3052}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{3052}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{3052}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.38\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.38\%} of {3052}.