Solution for 31.50 is what percent of 42:

31.50:42*100 =

(31.50*100):42 =

3150:42 = 75

Now we have: 31.50 is what percent of 42 = 75

Question: 31.50 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={31.50}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={31.50}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{31.50}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{31.50}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {75\%}

Therefore, {31.50} is {75\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 31.50


Solution for 42 is what percent of 31.50:

42:31.50*100 =

(42*100):31.50 =

4200:31.50 = 133.33333333333

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 31.50 = 133.33333333333

Question: 42 is what percent of 31.50?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 31.50 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={31.50}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={31.50}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{31.50}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{31.50}

\Rightarrow{x} = {133.33333333333\%}

Therefore, {42} is {133.33333333333\%} of {31.50}.