Solution for 31.6 is what percent of 42:

31.6:42*100 =

(31.6*100):42 =

3160:42 = 75.238095238095

Now we have: 31.6 is what percent of 42 = 75.238095238095

Question: 31.6 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={31.6}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={31.6}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{31.6}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{31.6}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {75.238095238095\%}

Therefore, {31.6} is {75.238095238095\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 31.6


Solution for 42 is what percent of 31.6:

42:31.6*100 =

(42*100):31.6 =

4200:31.6 = 132.91139240506

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 31.6 = 132.91139240506

Question: 42 is what percent of 31.6?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 31.6 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={31.6}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={31.6}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{31.6}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{31.6}

\Rightarrow{x} = {132.91139240506\%}

Therefore, {42} is {132.91139240506\%} of {31.6}.