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Solution for 3160 is what percent of 42:

3160:42*100 =

(3160*100):42 =

316000:42 = 7523.81

Now we have: 3160 is what percent of 42 = 7523.81

Question: 3160 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={3160}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={3160}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{3160}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{3160}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {7523.81\%}

Therefore, {3160} is {7523.81\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 3160:

42:3160*100 =

(42*100):3160 =

4200:3160 = 1.33

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 3160 = 1.33

Question: 42 is what percent of 3160?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 3160 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={3160}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={3160}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{3160}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{3160}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.33\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.33\%} of {3160}.