Solution for 318000 is what percent of 42:

318000:42*100 =

(318000*100):42 =

31800000:42 = 757142.86

Now we have: 318000 is what percent of 42 = 757142.86

Question: 318000 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={318000}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={318000}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{318000}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{318000}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {757142.86\%}

Therefore, {318000} is {757142.86\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 318000


Solution for 42 is what percent of 318000:

42:318000*100 =

(42*100):318000 =

4200:318000 = 0.01

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 318000 = 0.01

Question: 42 is what percent of 318000?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 318000 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={318000}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={318000}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{318000}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{318000}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.01\%}

Therefore, {42} is {0.01\%} of {318000}.