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Solution for 32.38 is what percent of 42:

32.38:42*100 =

(32.38*100):42 =

3238:42 = 77.095238095238

Now we have: 32.38 is what percent of 42 = 77.095238095238

Question: 32.38 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={32.38}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={32.38}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{32.38}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{32.38}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {77.095238095238\%}

Therefore, {32.38} is {77.095238095238\%} of {42}.

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• 32.38 is what percent of 41 = 78.98
• 32.38 is what percent of 42 = 77.1
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• 32.38 is what percent of 100 = 32.38

Solution for 42 is what percent of 32.38:

42:32.38*100 =

(42*100):32.38 =

4200:32.38 = 129.70969734404

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 32.38 = 129.70969734404

Question: 42 is what percent of 32.38?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 32.38 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={32.38}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={32.38}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{32.38}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{32.38}

\Rightarrow{x} = {129.70969734404\%}

Therefore, {42} is {129.70969734404\%} of {32.38}.