Solution for 33.08 is what percent of 42:

33.08:42*100 =

(33.08*100):42 =

3308:42 = 78.761904761905

Now we have: 33.08 is what percent of 42 = 78.761904761905

Question: 33.08 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={33.08}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={33.08}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{33.08}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{33.08}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {78.761904761905\%}

Therefore, {33.08} is {78.761904761905\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 33.08


Solution for 42 is what percent of 33.08:

42:33.08*100 =

(42*100):33.08 =

4200:33.08 = 126.96493349456

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 33.08 = 126.96493349456

Question: 42 is what percent of 33.08?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 33.08 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={33.08}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={33.08}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{33.08}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{33.08}

\Rightarrow{x} = {126.96493349456\%}

Therefore, {42} is {126.96493349456\%} of {33.08}.