Solution for 33.8 is what percent of 42:

33.8:42*100 =

(33.8*100):42 =

3380:42 = 80.47619047619

Now we have: 33.8 is what percent of 42 = 80.47619047619

Question: 33.8 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={33.8}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={33.8}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{33.8}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{33.8}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {80.47619047619\%}

Therefore, {33.8} is {80.47619047619\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 33.8


Solution for 42 is what percent of 33.8:

42:33.8*100 =

(42*100):33.8 =

4200:33.8 = 124.26035502959

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 33.8 = 124.26035502959

Question: 42 is what percent of 33.8?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 33.8 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={33.8}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={33.8}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{33.8}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{33.8}

\Rightarrow{x} = {124.26035502959\%}

Therefore, {42} is {124.26035502959\%} of {33.8}.