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Solution for 338 is what percent of 42:

338:42*100 =

(338*100):42 =

33800:42 = 804.76

Now we have: 338 is what percent of 42 = 804.76

Question: 338 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={338}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={338}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{338}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{338}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {804.76\%}

Therefore, {338} is {804.76\%} of {42}.

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• 338 is what percent of 50 = 676
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Solution for 42 is what percent of 338:

42:338*100 =

(42*100):338 =

4200:338 = 12.43

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 338 = 12.43

Question: 42 is what percent of 338?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 338 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={338}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={338}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{338}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{338}

\Rightarrow{x} = {12.43\%}

Therefore, {42} is {12.43\%} of {338}.