Solution for 338. is what percent of 42:

338.:42*100 =

(338.*100):42 =

33800:42 = 804.7619047619

Now we have: 338. is what percent of 42 = 804.7619047619

Question: 338. is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={338.}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={338.}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{338.}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{338.}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {804.7619047619\%}

Therefore, {338.} is {804.7619047619\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 338.


Solution for 42 is what percent of 338.:

42:338.*100 =

(42*100):338. =

4200:338. = 12.426035502959

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 338. = 12.426035502959

Question: 42 is what percent of 338.?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 338. is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={338.}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={338.}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{338.}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{338.}

\Rightarrow{x} = {12.426035502959\%}

Therefore, {42} is {12.426035502959\%} of {338.}.