Solution for 36.6 is what percent of 42:

36.6:42*100 =

(36.6*100):42 =

3660:42 = 87.142857142857

Now we have: 36.6 is what percent of 42 = 87.142857142857

Question: 36.6 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={36.6}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={36.6}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{36.6}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{36.6}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {87.142857142857\%}

Therefore, {36.6} is {87.142857142857\%} of {42}.

Solution for 42 is what percent of 36.6:

42:36.6*100 =

(42*100):36.6 =

4200:36.6 = 114.75409836066

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 36.6 = 114.75409836066

Question: 42 is what percent of 36.6?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 36.6 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={36.6}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={36.6}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{36.6}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{36.6}

\Rightarrow{x} = {114.75409836066\%}

Therefore, {42} is {114.75409836066\%} of {36.6}.