Solution for 36.8 is what percent of 42:

36.8:42*100 =

(36.8*100):42 =

3680:42 = 87.619047619048

Now we have: 36.8 is what percent of 42 = 87.619047619048

Question: 36.8 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={36.8}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={36.8}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{36.8}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{36.8}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {87.619047619048\%}

Therefore, {36.8} is {87.619047619048\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 36.8


Solution for 42 is what percent of 36.8:

42:36.8*100 =

(42*100):36.8 =

4200:36.8 = 114.13043478261

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 36.8 = 114.13043478261

Question: 42 is what percent of 36.8?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 36.8 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={36.8}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={36.8}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{36.8}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{36.8}

\Rightarrow{x} = {114.13043478261\%}

Therefore, {42} is {114.13043478261\%} of {36.8}.