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Solution for 38 is what percent of 42:

38:42*100 =

(38*100):42 =

3800:42 = 90.48

Now we have: 38 is what percent of 42 = 90.48

Question: 38 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={38}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={38}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{38}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{38}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {90.48\%}

Therefore, {38} is {90.48\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 38:

42:38*100 =

(42*100):38 =

4200:38 = 110.53

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 38 = 110.53

Question: 42 is what percent of 38?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 38 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={38}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={38}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{38}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{38}

\Rightarrow{x} = {110.53\%}

Therefore, {42} is {110.53\%} of {38}.