Solution for 38.50 is what percent of 42:

38.50:42*100 =

(38.50*100):42 =

3850:42 = 91.666666666667

Now we have: 38.50 is what percent of 42 = 91.666666666667

Question: 38.50 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={38.50}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={38.50}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{38.50}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{38.50}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {91.666666666667\%}

Therefore, {38.50} is {91.666666666667\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 38.50


Solution for 42 is what percent of 38.50:

42:38.50*100 =

(42*100):38.50 =

4200:38.50 = 109.09090909091

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 38.50 = 109.09090909091

Question: 42 is what percent of 38.50?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 38.50 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={38.50}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={38.50}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{38.50}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{38.50}

\Rightarrow{x} = {109.09090909091\%}

Therefore, {42} is {109.09090909091\%} of {38.50}.