Solution for 384 is what percent of 42:

384:42*100 =

(384*100):42 =

38400:42 = 914.29

Now we have: 384 is what percent of 42 = 914.29

Question: 384 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={384}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={384}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{384}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{384}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {914.29\%}

Therefore, {384} is {914.29\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 384


Solution for 42 is what percent of 384:

42:384*100 =

(42*100):384 =

4200:384 = 10.94

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 384 = 10.94

Question: 42 is what percent of 384?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 384 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={384}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={384}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{384}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{384}

\Rightarrow{x} = {10.94\%}

Therefore, {42} is {10.94\%} of {384}.