Solution for 40.38 is what percent of 42:

40.38:42*100 =

(40.38*100):42 =

4038:42 = 96.142857142857

Now we have: 40.38 is what percent of 42 = 96.142857142857

Question: 40.38 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={40.38}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={40.38}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{40.38}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{40.38}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {96.142857142857\%}

Therefore, {40.38} is {96.142857142857\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 40.38


Solution for 42 is what percent of 40.38:

42:40.38*100 =

(42*100):40.38 =

4200:40.38 = 104.01188707281

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 40.38 = 104.01188707281

Question: 42 is what percent of 40.38?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 40.38 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={40.38}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={40.38}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{40.38}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{40.38}

\Rightarrow{x} = {104.01188707281\%}

Therefore, {42} is {104.01188707281\%} of {40.38}.