Solution for 4007 is what percent of 42:

4007:42*100 =

(4007*100):42 =

400700:42 = 9540.48

Now we have: 4007 is what percent of 42 = 9540.48

Question: 4007 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={4007}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={4007}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{4007}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{4007}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {9540.48\%}

Therefore, {4007} is {9540.48\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 4007


Solution for 42 is what percent of 4007:

42:4007*100 =

(42*100):4007 =

4200:4007 = 1.05

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 4007 = 1.05

Question: 42 is what percent of 4007?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 4007 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={4007}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={4007}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{4007}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{4007}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.05\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.05\%} of {4007}.