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Solution for 4079 is what percent of 42:

4079:42*100 =

(4079*100):42 =

407900:42 = 9711.9

Now we have: 4079 is what percent of 42 = 9711.9

Question: 4079 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={4079}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={4079}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{4079}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{4079}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {9711.9\%}

Therefore, {4079} is {9711.9\%} of {42}.

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• 4079 is what percent of 100 = 4079

Solution for 42 is what percent of 4079:

42:4079*100 =

(42*100):4079 =

4200:4079 = 1.03

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 4079 = 1.03

Question: 42 is what percent of 4079?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 4079 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={4079}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={4079}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{4079}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{4079}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.03\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.03\%} of {4079}.