Solution for 42 is what percent of 68:

42:68*100 =

(42*100):68 =

4200:68 = 61.76

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 68 = 61.76

Question: 42 is what percent of 68?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 68 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={68}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={68}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{68}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{68}

\Rightarrow{x} = {61.76\%}

Therefore, {42} is {61.76\%} of {68}.


What Percent Of Table For 42


Solution for 68 is what percent of 42:

68:42*100 =

(68*100):42 =

6800:42 = 161.9

Now we have: 68 is what percent of 42 = 161.9

Question: 68 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={68}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={68}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{68}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{68}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {161.9\%}

Therefore, {68} is {161.9\%} of {42}.